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    2022大理中考英语真题及答案【word版】

    文/董玉莹

    机密★考试结束前

    2022年云南省初中学业水平考试

    英语 试题卷

    (全卷四个部分,共8页;满分120分考试用时120分钟)

    注意事项:

    1.本卷为试题卷。考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上,在试愿卷、草稿纸上作答无效。

    2.考试结束后,请将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。

    第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)

    做题时,先将答案标在试题卷上,录音内容结束后,请将试题卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

    第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

    听下面5个句子,从中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后,你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。

    第二节 (共5小题: 每小题15分,满分7.5分)

    听下面5个句子,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每个句子听两遍。

    6. A. It's my pleasure.

    B. It's hard to say.

    C.The same to you.

    7. A.Tall and strong.

    B. Red and orange.

    C. Smooth and soft.

    8. A. No, you can't.

    B. Here you are.

    C. Well done.

    9. A.Try your best.

    B.Take it easy.

    C. Sorry to hear that.

    10. A.Two months ago.

    B. Once a week.

    C. For several years.

    第三节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A,B、C三个选项中出最佳选项。听宠每段对话后,你将有秒钟的时间米回苦有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话听两遮。

    11.What will Tina do this afternoon?

    A. Prepare for a test.

    B.Take some medicine.

    C. Buy a book.

    12.When wilt Mr.White give a lesson online tonight?

    A. At 7:00.

    B. At 7:30.

    C. At 8:00.

    13. How long did Sarah stay in Kunming?

    A. 5 days.

    B.10 days.

    C. Two weeks.

    14. Why was Jenny late for school?

    A. She missed the early bus.

    B. Her bike broke down.

    C. The traffic was heavy.

    15.Where did the conversation probably happen?

    A. At a restaurant.

    B. At a ticket office.

    C. In a clothes shop.

    第四节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,满分75分)

    听下面2段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题:从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前。你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟:听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白听两遍。

    听第1段材料,回答第16、17小题。

    16.Who did Mr.Wang interview?

    A. Some doctors.

    B. Some writers.

    C. Some musicians.

    17.Which project did the woman take part in?

    A. A wild animal project.

    B. A folk music project.

    C. A music teacher project.

    听第2段材料,回答第18~20小题。

    18.When did Sunshine High School hold the toy festival?

    A. Last Friday morning.

    B. Last Saturday morning.

    C. Last Sunday morning.

    19.What will the money be used to buy?

    A.Second-hand toys.

    B. Different kinds of books.

    C. New schoolbags.

    20.Why does the school hold the toy festival?

    A.To teach students how to raise money.

    B.To help students learn to care for others.

    C.To set up a reading program for children.

    第二部分 英语知识运用

    (共两节,满分30分)

    第一节 单项填空 (共15小题: 每小题1分,满分15分)

    从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置。

    21.—Hello, boys and girls! I'm your new teacher.______

    —Nice to meet you, too.

    A. Nice to meet you.

    B.What's your name?

    B. Good morning.

    D. How are you?

    22.—What are you going to be when you grow up, Lily?

    —I'm going to be astronaut like Wang Yaping.

    A. A

    B. an

    C. the

    D. /

    23.—How do you relax in your free time?

    —_________doing sports and listening to music.

    A. At

    B. On

    C. In

    D. By

    24.—Would you like some coffee?

    —No, thanks. I______drink it. I think water is the best.

    A. Often

    B. hardly

    C.usually

    D. always

    25. Miss Li has lots of teaching_________. She has her own ways to make classes lively

    and interesting.

    A. exercise

    B. excitement

    C.experience

    D. environment

    26. If you want__________ your pronunciation, keep on practicing every day.

    A. Improve

    B. improved

    C. improving

    D. to improve

    27.—I'm sorry, Bill. I took your notebook by mistake.

    —___________. They look almost the same.

    A.You're not right

    B. It doesn't matter

    C.I hope not

    D. I'm not sure

    28.—How was your camping in the countryside last weekend?

    —It was great.We____________ a tent by the lake and had much fun.

    A. put up

    B. put off

    C.put on

    D. put in

    29.—_____is it from your home to school, Alice?

    —About fifteen minutes' walk.

    A. How often

    B. How far

    C. How many

    D. How much

    30.—Kids should play outdoor games more instead of playing computer games.

    —_____It will be better for their eyes.

    A. Just so so

    B. Not at all

    C.I agree with you

    D.It's a pity

    31. Our school life has become than before because of all kinds of after-school activities.

    A. colorful

    B. colorfully

    C. more colorful

    D. the most colorful

    32. I advise you not to show_________ on the WeChat because it may cause trouble.

    A. anything personal

    B. personal anything

    C. something personal

    D. personal something

    33. How time flies! I________a senior high school this September.

    A. enter

    B. entered

    C. will enter

    D. have entered

    34. For your safety, you mustn't get close to the train__________ it stops.

    A. while

    B. when

    C. since

    D. until

    35.—Your stamps are so fantastic. Could you please tell me______?

    —Oh,I bought them in the post office next to the bank.

    A. why did you buy them

    B. where did you buy them

    B. why you bought them

    D. where you bought them

    下面是腾讯提供的广告,广告后精彩继续

    第二节 完形填空(共10小题:每小题1.5分,满分15分)

    从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

    Mr.Dawson is an old man with a bad temper (脾). He had several apple trees in his yard, full of apples. However, kids were 36 to go into the yard. They would rather stay far away from it.

    One day, 12-year-old Janet and 37 friend Amy had to walk past Mr. Dawson's yard. As soon as Janet saw him there, she suggested they cross the street and walk on 38 side. But Amy said they didn't need to.

    When Mr. Dawson saw Amy, he smiled and said, “Hello, Amy! I see you have a new friend 39 you today." Amy smiled back. Mr. Dawson was kind and gave them each a fresh 40 from his yard.

    Later, Janet asked Amy, “Everyone says Mr. Dawson is the 41 person in town.

    Why was he so nice to us?" Amy 42 that she was also afraid of him when she first walked past his yard. 43 she told herself the old man was not as cold as he seemed and tried smiling at him. To her 44 the man smiled back. From then on, they began to talk more every time they met.

    Janet then realized smiles do 45 .

    If we keep trying to smile at someone, sooner or later, they will smile back.

    36. A. afraid B. excited

    C. crazy D. mad

    37. A. my B. her C. their D. his

    38. A. other B. others

    C. another D. the other

    39. A. for B. about C. with D. from

    40. A. orange B. strawberry

    C. pear D. apple

    41. A. cutest B. cleverest

    C. healthiest D. unfriendliest

    42. A. promised B. believed

    C. explained D. regretted

    43. A. But B. Unless C. If D. And

    44. A. Sadness B. worry

    C. surprise D. fear

    45. A. lift B.spread C. fail D. lose

    第三部分 阅读理解

    (共三节,满分35分)

    第一节 (共5小题: 每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

    根据短文内容,判断正误(正确“T”,错误“F”),并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

    Every Saturday,Wang Fokun travels 40 minutes to “watch” a movie with his friends. He became blind in his early 50s. However, he can still enjoy movies in a "talking movie"club-XinDeng Theater.The club is in Kunming,Yunnan. A group of volunteers there describe movies to blind people.

    "I listened to a movie for the first time in the summer of 2019, and it was amazing. The volunteers did a great job." said Wang.

    Describing movies to blind people can be challenging (有挑战性的).The volunteers must watch a movie three or four times to know everything in the movie. This way, they can describethe movie very clearly.

    Zhou Quan started the club in 20l7.“Movies are for everybody," said Zhou. "Xin DengTheater hopes to share movies with blind people and help to light up their lives.Thanks to the special club, many blind people go out of their homes and their lives are more interesting.

    Now many blind people come to Xin Deng Theater to"watch" movies every week. “Theycan enjoy the movies here. I'm so glad that I bring enjoyment to them."said Zhou.

    “It's meaningful for us to spend our free time volunteering,”said one volunteer.

    46.Wang Fokun goes to Xin Deng Theater three or four times a week.

    47.The volunteers in the club describe movies to blind people.

    48.Xin Deng Theater was set up in 2019.

    49.Both blind people and the volunteers enjoy spending time in the club.

    50.The passage mainly talks about a movie.

    第二节 (共10小题;每小题2分,满分20分)

    根据短文内容,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上

    A

    We know many musical instruments well, such as pianos, violins, drums and so on. Whatabout the erhu? The is a traditional Chinese instrument. It is the most popular of the huqinfamily, and it has a long history.

    The modern erhu developed from the xiqin, which was played by many ethnic minorities (少数民族)during the Tang Dynasty. In the Song Dynasty, musicians began to use the erhu to perform different kinds of music, and it became quite a popular instrument.With the rise of some forms of folk art, the art of the erhu developed quickly during the Ming and Qing Dynasties. It became an important accompanying (伴奏) instrument in different folk music. At present, it is used in both traditional and modern music, such as in pop, rock and jazz. It has even become a solo (独奏)instrument. One of the most famous musical pieces played on the erh is Erquan Yinyue.

    As the erhu was mainly played by common people and the playing skills were passed downorally (口头地),there are few written records about the erhu that can be found. To study thehistory and the development of the erh, historians (历史学者) usually turn to ancient paintings.The earliest pictures of this instrument were found in Yulin Caves and Eastern Thousand BuddhaCaves in Gansu Province, where five erlu pictures were discovered on murals (壁画).

    51.When did the erhu become a popular instrument?

    A. In the Tang Dynasty. B. In the Song Dynasty.

    C. In the Ming Dynasty. D. In recent years.

    52.To study the history of the erhu, historians usually___________.

    A. play the most famous erhu pieces. B. listen to different kinds of folk music

    C. get help from ancient paintings D. read some books about ethnic minorities

    53.Which is TRUE according to the passage?

    A. The huqin belongs to the erhu family.

    B. Folk art stops the development of the erhu.

    C. People can find plenty of written records about the erhu.

    D. The erhu is used in both traditional and modern music now.

    54.You may read the passage in the__________ section of a newspaper.

    A. culture B. business C. health D. nature

    55. The passage mainly talks about_____________.

    A. the forms of folk music B. the history of the erlu

    C. the rise of different dynasties D. the development of Chinese instruments

    B

    Wukong, Tiangong, Tianwen...Do you know where the names of Chinese space programscome from?

    Wukong, the Dark Matter Particle Explorer satellite (暗物质粒子探测卫星), is named afterChinese superhero Monkey King. According to Journey to the West, Monkey King has a pair ofsharp eyes which can tell the difference between good and evil.The Wukong satellite is just assharp-eyed as Monkey King to help scientists search for dark matter in space.

    The name of the space station, Tiangong, means "Heavenly Palace". In Chinese myths , this isthe home of Tian Di. Now Tiangong Space Station is a home for Chinese astronauts in space.AndChina welcomes foreign astronauts to Tiangong so that they can work together.

    Tianwen, China's Mars missions (任务),gets its name from the poem Tianwen by Qu Yuan.Qu Yuan is a well-known poet from ancient China. In Tianwen, he had the questions about the sky, stars, nature, myths and the real world, showing his hunger for truth. Perhaps the Tianwenmissions will end up answering some of Qu Yuan's questions.

    If you look into more names of Chinese space programs, you will find that they all have beautiful meanings. We, the Chinese people, have a long-cherished (珍藏已久的) space dream. So the naming of Chinese space programs is taken very seriously.

    56.What is the Wukong satellite used for?

    A. Answering some of Qu Yuan's questions.

    B. Finding the difference between good and evil.

    C. Helping scientists search for dark matter in space.

    D. Welcoming foreign astronauts to the space station.

    57. The underlined word “myth” in Paragraph3 means“__________”in Chinese.

    A.诗歌 B.神话 C.诊语 D.传记

    58. The name of China's Mars missions is from__________.

    A. Qu Yuan's poem Tianwen. B. an ancient novel

    C. ancient Chinese myths D. Journey to the West

    59. Why do we take the naming of Chinese space programs seriously?

    A. We want to land on Mars. B. We want to protect the Earth.

    C. We have the hunger for truth. D. We have a dream for space.

    60. Which can be the best title for the passage?

    A. What Beautiful Names B. What a Cherished Star

    C. What Excellent Poems D. What a Long Journey

    第三节 (共5小题: 每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

    根据短文内容,从短文后所给的选项中,选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项,并将所选答案涂到答题卡的相应位置上。

    Do you feel nervous when you talk to your parents? Do you easily make them angry? Don'tworry. 61

    Find the common interests between you and your parents. For example, if you and your dad both like playing basketball, you can watch one game together and talk about it. 62

    Try to start a dinnertime talk with your parents.Ask your parents about their day, and theywill open up to you easily. Don't forget that you have to open up to them, too. 63 Besides, it's also a good idea to share something about the latest movies. Soon all of you will have a goodconversation.

    64 Eye contact (交流) is necessary. Don't be bored, or they will probably stop talking andwalk away. 65 If you listen patiently, they'll be interested in talking to you. As a result, there will be a warm conversation between you and your parents.

    In a word, it's easy to get along well with your parents if you see them as your friends.

    A.Let them know you're listening.

    B.Tell them what happened at school.

    C.It's important to have a healthy diet.

    D.Look at your parents when you talk.

    E.Get some training at a parents' school.

    F.You can find the conversation will come easily.

    G. Here is some advice about how to talk to your parents.

    第四部分 写作 (共三节,满分25分)

    第一节 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    根据句意,用括号中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。

    66.After the 2022 Spring Festival Gala, dance-poem drama Thousands of Miles of

    Mountains and Rivers (《只此青绿》) became__________ known all over China. (wide)

    67.Everyone can be a ________ person to make our motherland stronger. (use)

    68.Because COVID-19 hasn't gone away, wearing masks (口罩) in public is a good way to

    look after_______and the people around us. (we)

    69.Tourists can see many western-style_______________ in Shanghai Disneyland. (build)

    70.Different activities were held to celebrate the___________birthday of the Communist

    Youth League of China last month. (hundred)

    第二节 (共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语,注意使用适当的形式,并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置上。

    71.Visitors to Yunnan like to taste special dishes, such as flower cakes, Qiguo Chicken,

    ___________and so on. (米线)

    72.More and more people in cities choose to go to work by bike or_________. (步行)

    73.On February 6, China women's soccer team won the Asian Cup because they didn't

    ______when they were 0-2 behind. (放弃)

    74.Teachers________their students in order to help them make great progress.(对…...严格)

    75.Nowadays, many schools encourage students to________ to let them understand where

    foods come from. (种菜)

    第三节 书面表达(满分15分)

    I Learned How to__________

    提示:人生是一个不断学习、进步的过程。通过学习,你掌握了某种技能,明白了某些道理…… 请以“I Learned How to____________”为题, 用英语写一篇短文,

    叙述你的一次学习经历,并谈谈你的感受。

    要求:1. 请先将题目补全后, 再作答;

    2. 语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁, 词数不少于60个;

    3. 文中不得使用真实姓名、校名,否则以零分计;

    4.请将短文写在答题卡上,写在本试题卷上无效。

    参考答案

    第一部分听力(共四节,满分30分)

    1-5: BAACC

    6-10: ABACB

    11-15: CBABC

    16-20: CAABB

    第三部分 英语知识运用 (共两节,满分30分)

    21-25:ABDBC

    26-30:DBABC

    31-35:CACDD

    36-40:ABDCD

    41-45:DCACB

    第三部分 阅读理解 (共三节,满分35分)

    46-50: FTFTF

    51-55: BCDAB

    56-60: CBADA

    61-65: GFBDA

    第四部分 写作 (共三节,满分25分)

    66. widely 67. useful 68. ourselves

    69. buildings 70. hundredth/100th

    71. rice noodles 72. on foot

    73. give up 74. are strict with/are hard on

    75. grow/plant vegetables

    写作(参考范文)

    I Learned How to swim

    When I was a child, I always dream to swim in the sea happily. But unfortunately, I was afraid of water when I was born, so each time our family went to picnic on the beach, I could just sit there and watch them joining the swimming or surfing.

    One day, my father took me to the swimming pool and started to teach me how to swim. Then he suddenly captured my head into the water, at that time I felt that I was almost dying, but after that I was continuous soakinginto the water, I felt better and adapted to the water that I was surrounded. Then, my dad began to teach me the skill of swimming step by step.

    Since then , I have learned how to swim. How happy I was! It was really an unforgettable experience.

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