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    2022景德镇中考英语真题及答案【word版】

    文/董玉莹

    2022年江西省初中学业水平考试英语试题

    说明:

    1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。

    2.请将答案写在答题卡上,否则不给分。

    3.本文源自“锦鲤英语”微信公众号。

    一、听力理解(每小题1分,共20分)

    现在是试听时间。请听一段对话,然后回答问题。

    What is the boy going to buy?

    A. Some juice.

    B. Some oranges.

    C. Some apples.

    答案是C。

    A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。

    1. What club does Jim want to join?

    A. The science club.

    B. The art club.

    C. The chess club.

    2. How’s the weather tomorrow?

    A. Warm and windy.

    B. Cold and rainy.

    C. Hot and sunny.

    3. What’s the matter with Mr. White?

    A. He has a fever.

    B. He has a cough.

    C. He has a headache.

    4. Why was Mary late?

    A. She had a car accident.

    B. She didn’t catch the bus.

    C. There was too much traffic.

    5. What does the man mean?

    A. He didn’t enjoy the trip.

    B. He’s an honest school boy.

    C. He’s happy to stay at home.

    B)请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。

    请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。

    6. What would the woman like?

    A. Juice.

    B. Water.

    C. Milk.

    7. How many glasses does she need?

    A. 1.

    B. 2.

    C. 3.

    请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。

    8. When does Amy go to the old people’s home?

    A. On Saturday morning.

    B. On Saturday afternoon.

    C. On Sunday afternoon.

    9. What does she often do there?

    A. Tell stories.

    B. Wash the clothes.

    C. Clean the rooms.

    请听第3段对话,回答第10至第12小题。

    10. Where is the boy going?

    A. To a theater.

    B. To a park.

    C. To a museum.

    11. How long is it open on Monday?

    A. For 6 hours.

    B. For 7 hours.

    C. For 8 hours.

    12. What can we know about the boy?

    A. His family are new here.

    B. He prefers to go there by taxi.

    C. He needs to pay $60 for the ticket.

    请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。

    13. What’s Michael going to do?

    A. Give a report.

    B. Have a class.

    C. Have a meeting.

    14. What color is the notebook?

    A. Red.

    B. Black.

    C. Blue.

    15. What can we learn from the conversation?

    A. Linda finds the notebook at last.

    B. Linda lends Michael a notebook.

    C. Michael leaves his notebook at home.

    C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。

    16. Li Lei is talking about an important day, ________ Day.

    17. Many people like ________ and students take part in it.

    18. Since ________, it has become famous around the world.

    19. Last year, people in the town planted ________ new trees.

    20. People also cleaned up the park and the ________.

    二、单项填空(每小题1分,共8分)

    请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    1. Which ice cream do you want, Mary? You can’t have all of them. You have to make a ________.

    A. wish

    B. survey

    C. choice

    D. call

    2. —Sssh! Be quiet. I’m on the phone.

    —Who ________ you ________ to, mom?

    A. do, speak

    B. are, speaking

    C. will, speak

    D. have, spoken

    3. I only got four hours of sleep last night, so I feel ________ today.

    A. tired

    B. lonely

    C. hungry

    D. proud

    【答案】A

    4. ________ me, I’ll show you the way.

    A. Follow

    B. Forget

    C. Leave

    D. Punish

    5. —Who do you think will win the race, Bob or Tom?

    —It must be Bob. I think he runs ________.

    A. faster

    B. fastest

    C. more slowly

    D. most slowly

    6. Don’t leave your toys on the table, or I ________ them away.

    A. threw

    B. will throw

    C. have thrown

    D. was throwing

    7. Mr. Smith created a new game. Soon all his students ________ rules to play it.

    A. teach

    B. taught

    C. are taught

    D. were taught

    8. ________ many things change a lot, a love of sports hasn’t changed a bit.

    A. If B. Before C. Though D. Because

    三、完形填空(每小题1分,共26分)

    A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    Sit With Us

    You’re at your new school. It’s lunch time, but you don’t have anyone to sit with. You want to join someone at their table, ___9___ you’re not sure if they’re friendly. What do you do? Natalie’s ___10___ of solving the problem was to create an app. She knows what it feels like to be alone at a new school. She found it difficult to make new friends and had to ___11___ a new table at lunch every day. If she sat ___12___, she felt lonely. But if she asked to join someone and was ___13___, she felt embarrassed. She created a lunch-planning app to help students like ___14___ find people to have lunch with.

    The app — called Sit With Us — is ___15___. If a student is having lunch in the afternoon, he or she can create an invitation. Other students can open the app and ___16___ that invitation. They can then use the app to decide when and where to ___17___. This allows students to make ___18___ online instead of face-to-face. This is the reason why it works so ___19___: it lowers the risk of being refused, and the embarrassment that goes along with it.

    Natalie is ___20___ to see that people are replying to her app actively — especially those who suffer from bullying (遭受欺凌). Soon after she made her app available to the public, she won a prize for it. She ___21___ appeared in many news stories.

    Natalie was even asked to speak at a university. In her ___22___, Natalie wanted people to know that you don’t have to do something ___23___ to change lives. Sometimes, a simple thing — like having a friend to enjoy lunch with — can make all the difference.

    9. A. so B. or C. for D. but

    10. A. habit B. course

    C. method D. question

    11. A. search for B. fix up

    C. give out D. get away from

    12. A. on time B. in a hurry

    C. by herself D. in public

    13. A. called B. refused

    C. discussed D. believed

    14. A. us B. it C. her D. them

    15. A. cheap B. simple

    C. private D. noisy

    16. A. miss B. make C. send D. accept

    17. A. stop B. study C. meet D. exercise

    18. A. plans B. trouble

    C. reports D. dinner

    19. A. late B. well C. hard D. loudly

    20. A. upset B. sorry

    C. happy D. angry

    21. A. also B. just C. still D. seldom

    22. A. book B. talk C. school D. picture

    23A. big B. new C. similar D. enjoyable

    B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。

    Wang Yaping is an astronaut. In 2013, she became the second Chinese woman to travel to ___24___. She is also famous for a physics class televised for more than 60 million people.

    Wang trained very hard for many years ___25___ an astronaut. The hardest part was ___26___ training. Wearing a spacesuit and carrying special and ___27___ equipment(装备), she walked several kilometers through the ___28___ and sandy desert. “Sometimes it was so windy and dusty(布满灰尘的),” she says, “that we couldn’t ___29___ each other even though we were just a few meters away.”

    Wang ___30___ her job. She remembers watching the first ___31___ astronaut go into space. “I was so proud and also very excited. But ___32___ I watched it, a thought came into my mind: We have men pilots and women pilots; and ___33___ a man astronaut. When will there be a ___34___ astronaut? And today, it’s me becoming one of the first few.”

    四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共46分)

    A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    A

    Horse Sanctuary

    Farming Museums

    ●Gift shop

    Open Daily 10:00 a.m.—5:30 p.m.

    ●Children’s playground and activity area

    ●Visitors may adopt (领养) a rescued animal for free!

    Admission:

    Adults: $7

    Children (up to 16): $5

    Children (3 & under): Free

    Family (2 adults & 2 children): $20

    FREE CAR AND COACH PARK.

    TOILET FOR THE DISABLED AND WHEELCHAIR ACCESS (通道) IN ALL AREAS.

    35. When can the visitors buy the gifts?

    A. At 9:30 a.m.

    B. At 11:00 a.m.

    C. At 6:00 p.m.

    D. At 10:00 p.m.

    36. How much is a ticket for a 15-year-old boy?

    A. $5.

    B. $7.

    C. $12.

    D. $20.

    37. What do we know about the museum?

    A. It doesn’t provide a free parking lot.

    B. The animals there can’t be adopted.

    C. It offers the disabled special service.

    D. Children under 3 are not welcome there.

    B

    Why is the sea salt? Long before we discovered scientific ways of thinking about it, we explained it in a story. Even though the answer isn’t scientific, it holds some other truth in it — especially about the human heart.

    Long ago, a poor old couple lived on the coast. One day, an old storyteller came to their village. The old couple gave him a meal. In return, he gave them a coffee mill (磨粉机) and said, “Say, ‘Mill, please grind (磨粉)’,” and it’ll make whatever you want, to stop it, say ‘Mill, please cease (停止) grinding’.”

    Soon the old couple had a much better life. They’d been happy people, and they didn’t need much more. But the young couple next door were never satisfied. When they saw the old couple wearing good clothes and buying good food, they burnt with envy (羡慕). So one day, the young husband went to the old couple’s house secretly and heard, “Mill, please grind hot chocolate!” He was surprised to see it coming out.

    Then the young couple stole the mill from the old couple. With it, they rode a horse and set off down the coast, where no one would know them. Along the way, the husband showed proudly and asked, “What do you want it to make?” “Oh. I don’t know. Why not salt?” the wife said. “Mill, please grind salt!” he said. “It works!” the wife shouted. But then they noticed the salt went everywhere. “Make it stop,” the wife said. But the husband didn’t know how. “Mill, please stop grinding! Please, no more!” His words didn’t work. The mill kept grinding. Finally, the young husband threw the mill into the sea as far as he could.

    And there it’s been, for hundreds of years, endlessly grinding salt. That’s why the sea is salt.

    38. The passage is probably a(n) ________.

    A. folk story

    B. instruction

    C. science fiction

    D. science report

    39. Put the things happened to the mill in correct order.

    a. It began to produce salt.

    b. The young husband threw it.

    c. The young couple stole it.

    d. The old couple got it.

    A. b-d-a-c

    B. b-a-d-c

    C. d-a-c-b

    D. d-c-a-b

    40. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 4 refer to?

    A. The coffee.

    B. The horse.

    C. The mill.

    D. The chocolate.

    41. How did the young husband’s feelings change?

    A. sorry — sad — excited

    B. thirsty — excited — afraid

    C. happy — nervous — proud

    D. surprised — thankful — happy

    42. What does the word “truth” in Paragraph 1 imply (暗指)?

    A. Being patient.

    B. Working properly.

    C. Being satisfied.

    D. Listening carefully.

    C

    Indonesians love to celebrate. They believe that celebrating and eating together brings good luck. Let’s party Indonesia-style.

    IMG_256

    Would you be surprised to find a New Year’s Day in March? Indonesians on the island of Bali are getting ready to ring in Nyepi, their New Year. It falls in March or April on the night of the new moon and is a symbol of a fresh start for the people and the island of Bali. On the eve of Nyepi, families and friends get together in the market. They carry a huge monster which is made of wood and other materials around the village three times. After that, people set it on fire, hoping to drive out evil (邪恶的) spirits.

    After Nyepi, a Turun tanah ceremony begins in honor of a child’s first steps. At the Turun Tanah, parents invite friends and family to a party to introduce the baby. They put different objects such as a bracelet (手镯), pen, mirror or toy computer around their baby. If the baby picks up a pen, he or she may be a writer. A child who picks up a gold bracelet may be rich.

    While Turun tanah celebrates the future of a family. Galungan celebrates its past. Ancestors who have died return ‘home’ during this ten-day celebration. And living relatives do their best to make them happy. Tall bamboo poles line the street. People attend the ceremonies and visit their family and village temples. Actors and dancers give performances that tell stories of good fighting against evil.

    A year of festivals has come to an end. Don’t worry: next year, Indonesia will be buzzing (发出嗡嗡声) again with celebrations, so welcome to the party!

    43. What’s the theme (主题) of the passage?

    A. Celebrations.

    B. Feelings.

    C. Family.

    D. Health.

    44. What do people do during Galungan? Check and choose the right answer.

    ①Watch performances.

    ②Discuss new babies’ future.

    ③Visit their family and village temples.

    ④Put the bamboo poles along the street.

    ⑤Carry a huge monster around the village.

    A. ①②⑤

    B. ①③④

    C. ②③④

    D. ③④⑤

    45. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

    A. The baby who picks up a pen may be a writer.

    B. Nyepi usually comes after Turun tanah in Bali.

    C. New Year’s Day in Indonesia begins in February.

    D. People fire bamboo poles to drive away the monster.

    46Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?

    47. What is the writer’s purpose according to the passage?

    A. To welcome us to the festivals.

    B. To show us how to treat the ancestors.

    C. To tell us how to hold the party.

    D. To teach us how to fight against the evil.

    D

    Improvements in technology often happen overnight. Some gadgets get smaller and faster. Others are replaced (代替) by newer things like smartphones. They can do hundreds of things. Here are some old gadgets that people used to use.

    ①________

    Do you have a landline at home? These are phones that people plug (插入) into their living room walls. Mobile phones didn’t use to be so common at that time, so most families had a landline. But landlines only worked at home. What did people do when they were outside and needed to call someone? They looked for a pay phone! Then, most people had their own mobile phones and many homes no longer had landlines.

    ②________

    People today store plenty of information online, or on SD cards. But in the 1980s and 1990s, people used to use floppy disks. The first floppy disks were large, expensive, and not very useful — each disk could store just 175 KB of information! Later, floppy disks got smaller and better. But even the best ones could only hold 1.44 MB. You would need three or four disks just for one song, and about 22,000 disks to match the storage (储存空间) available on a 32 GB phone!

    ③________

    It’s easy to take photos today. People often have thousands just on their phones! But photos used to be expensive, and people took fewer of them. To take a photo, you had to buy a roll of film. This allowed you to take about 30 photos. After finishing the roll, you left it at a shop. The shop developed the photos to make them be seen, which you could collect after a few days.

    Technology changes all the time, and the gadgets we use today will one day be old. What do you think will be next to disappear?

    48. What does the underlined word “gadgets” mean in Paragraph 1?

    A. Toys.

    B. Tools.

    C. Games.

    D. Phones.

    49. Match the title with each paragraph.

    a. Goodbye Disks

    b. Music to My Ears

    c. Picture This

    d. Call Me

    e. Film Development

    A. ①-d, ②-b, ③-e

    B. ①-d, ②-a, ③-c

    C. ①-c, ②-a, ③-b

    D. ①-c, ②-b, ③-e

    50. What were the first floppy disks like?

    A. They could store much.

    B. They were very useful.

    C. They cost a lot of money.

    D. They were easy to carry.

    51. What can we get from the passage?

    A. It was convenient to take photos with film.

    B. People outside used landlines to call someone.

    C. Improvements in technology change people’s life.

    D. For a time, many people had pay phones at home.

    52. What would be the best title for the passage?

    A. The Changing Phones.

    B. The Products of Tomorrow.

    C. Old Things We Use Today.

    D. The Things We Used to Use.

    B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。

    Silk, the word itself is beautiful. The story of silk started in China over 4,000 years ago. It says a silkworm’s cocoon(蚕茧) fell into a woman’s teacup. It then opened into a single, unbroken thread (线).___53___ The Chinese learned they could use the cocoons to make cloth that was both beautiful to look at and soft to touch.

    ___54___ In other countries, silk was valuable and not often seen. Often it was worth more than gold. It’s said that the secret finally got out when a princess left China to go to India. In her hair, she secretly carried many silkworms.

    By the year 1 A. D., silk was sold as far west as Rome, and all along the Silk Road. ___55___ Centuries later, in 1522, the Spanish brought silkworms to Mexico.

    Nowadays people around the world still make many beautiful things from silk. Silk isn’t only beautiful. It seems that it’s easy to break. ___56___ For example, it has been used to make bicycle tires(轮胎). And some doctors even use silk threads in the hospital. ___57___ This makes it great for clothes like winter jackets, pants, and shoes.

    All of this from a little insect—the silkworm. That is the miracle(神奇) of silk.

    五、补全对话(每小题1分,共5分)

    请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,一空一句。

    (John and his friend Kate are talking on the phone. J=John, K=Kate)

    J: Hello?

    K: Hi, John! ___58___ You weren’t at the party last Sunday.

    J: I’m on vacation right now.

    K: Great! ___59___

    J: I’m afraid not. It’s an unusual beach. In my opinion, the fewer people, the better.

    K: ___60___

    J: That’s true. The sun is shining brightly and the sea is so beautiful.

    K: ___61___

    J: Nothing much. I just read and rest every day. In fact, I was asleep before your call.

    K: Oh, I’m sorry. ___62___

    J: Thanks. See you next week.

    六、书面表达(15分)

    63. 学校决定开展向航天女英雄王亚平学习的英文演讲活动,请你按下面表格要求写一篇演讲稿。先简单介绍王亚平的个人信息,再谈谈你从本卷完形填空B篇中感受到的她的优秀品质(personality),最后说说你打算如何向她学习。

    要求:

    1.短文应包括表格中所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;

    2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;

    3.词数80—120,短文开头及结尾已给出,不计入总词数。

    Hello, everyone! It’s my honor to introduce an astronaut hero —Wang Yaping.

    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

    Thank you!

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