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    2023成都石室联合中学中考英语模拟试题及答案

    文/董玉莹

    英 语

    本试卷共四大题,12页,满分90分,考试用时100分钟。

    注意事项:

    1. 答题前,考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔填写自己的考生号、姓名。

    2. 选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。

    3. 非选择题答案必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔写在答题卡各题目指定区域内的相应位置上;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案,改动后的答案也不能超出指定的区域;不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

    4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁,考试结束时,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

    一、语法选择(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

    阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从1~15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    To student in England, the General Certificate of Secondary Education (GCSE) examination ___1___ the zhongkao in China. After two years of the COVID-19 pandemic, England’s GCSE exams have been changed. It affects Year 11 exam takers, like me.

    Back in February, the GCSE exam boards(委员会)said they ___2___ the amount of information ___3___ need to know for the summer exams. This is due to the many interruptions(停课)in our education over the past two years. Not all schools ___4___ continue teaching their students during lockdown. Reductions on the syllabus(教学大纲)came mostly as ___5___ relief but also caused some confusion. We were pleased that there was ___6___ material to learn, but what’s been cut out is not always clear. This has caused some confusion among students.

    Most people in my school take at least nine GCSE exams. Five exams (English, math, physics, chemistry and biology) are obligatory, and another four can ___7___, for example, French, philosophy, history or art. I am taking 12 GCSE exams this year, ___8___ the workload(负担)can get a bit too ___9___ sometimes. So my friends and I are very happy ___10___ the reductions!

    With the final exams coming up in two weeks, everyone in my year is busy ___11___. Some of my friends, ___12___ are super organized, are still taking on extracurricular activities! I keep reminding them that they need to give themselves breaks ___13___ being too tired; it will do more damage than good! This applies to all students. ___14___ you feel nervous about schoolwork, take a ___15___ break to refresh your mind. It will help you be more productive!

    1. A. like B. likes C. liked D. is like

    2. A. is reducing B. would reduce C. reduce D. will reduce

    3. A. they B. we C. it D. you

    4. A. should B. might C. could D. had to

    5. A. a B. the C. an D. /

    6. A. less B. fewer C. more D. much

    7. A. choose B. choice C. be chosen D. chosen

    8. A. but B. for C. or D. and

    9. A. heavily B. heavy C. heavier D. heaviest

    10. A. for B. on C. to D. with

    11. A. study B. to study C. studying D. studied

    12. A. which B. whom C. who D. that

    13. A. to avoid B. avoiding C. avoid D. to avoiding

    14. A. Where B. When C. How D. What

    15. A. five-minute B. five minute C. five-minutes D. five minutes

    二、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

    阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从16~25各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    It was the start of Daylight Savings Time, the night when we all move our clocks forward an hour. I didn’t want to wake up too ___16___ or sleep in too late. This caused me to overthink things and ___17___ during the night.

    I was disturbed by how quiet the room was. Although the desk fan was on low and the electric heater had kicked on and was running noisily, it still seemed strangely ___18___ to me. Something seemed missing. It was only then I realized that I didn’t hear a snoozing beagle snoring away.

    IMG_256

    My beagle dog, Snoopy had ___19___ over a year ago. As she had got older and her ___20___ became worse, she had started to snore loudly when she slept. At first, I found her snoring ___21___. It made it harder for me to fall asleep. Yet, as time passed, it became a blessing. She became my personal white noise machine and when I woke up during the night her snoring would ___22___ me and ease me back to sleep.

    Now her ___23___ was gone and it was so quiet. I sighed and remembered all the ___24___ Snoopy had given me over the years. She never judged me, she never argued with me, and each day she gave me the gifts of laughter and unconditional love.

    Life is short for dogs and for us. Embrace each second of it. ___25___ the pleasures it brings. Live each day like it was your last.

    16. A. late B. easily C. early D. simply

    17. A. cheer up B. wake up C. sit down D. lie down

    18. A. noisy B. lonely C. busy D. quiet

    19. A. passed away B. fallen apart C. died out D. shown up

    20. A. sight B. attention C. ability D. health

    21. A. different B. funny C. annoying D. interesting

    22. A. upset B. excite C. encourage D. comfort

    23. A. barking B. snoring C. greeting D. chasing

    24. A. joy B. regrets C. friendship D. challenges

    25. A. Enjoy B. Understand C. Record D. Imagine

    三、阅读(共两节,满分35分)

    第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

    阅读下列短文,掌握其大意,从各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    (A)

    For her 85th birthday, I gave my mother Susan an iPad. She’d never used a computer. She had a trying relationship with her TV remote control and a painful experience with her mobile phone. However, this time she was dying to learn about the iPad. She believed that if she didn’t keep up with technology, she would find herself in a computerized kitchen, “unable to open a can of soup”.

    Our first task was email. She quickly learned the basic rules but couldn’t understand why she has to email others when she could phone or visit in person.

    Next, we dealt with Netflix, the widely-used video website. Mom is a movie lover and she was surprised by the number of crime movies that Netflix can offer. One Saturday, she called me because she was having trouble logging onto(登录)Netflix. I suggested it might require an update. “They probably have fewer people working as it’s a long weekend,” she told me.

    Later, she taught herself to learn FaceTime and started her experiments with podcasts, and even started emailing her grandchildren.

    As she became more familiar, she began wondering about all the icons(图标), so we set up a weekly lecture, which takes place on the phone, each of us with our iPads. One day, I tried for 45 minutes to help her find the search bar. “It looks like a magnifying glass(放大镜),” I kept saying. Finally, she asked: “You mean the frying pan?”

    Unexpectedly, she made great progress. Now she becomes interested in E-books and even check them out in the middle of the night. She watches TV series and knows what’s popular. It’s great to see how much her confidence has grown. Yesterday, she FaceTimed me. “I’ve made a decision,” she said. “I’m going to learn how to operate every piece of technology in the apartment - including the TV remote.” However, I still can’t wait for the day when we can sit down in person and surf the Internet together.

    26. Why did Susan decide to learn to use an iPad?

    A. To keep up with the times.

    B. To connect with her family.

    C. To better control her kitchen.

    D. To keep in touch with her friends.

    27. Which of the following shows the correct order of Susan’s experience?

    a. She began emailing her grandchildren.

    b. She asked the author about the search bar.

    c. She received an iPad as a birthday present.

    d. She met difficulties in logging onto the video website.

    e. She decided to learn about the technologies in the apartment.

    A. c-d-a-b-e B. c-e-d-a-b C. e-c-d-a-b D. e-a-d-b-c

    28. Which word best describes Susan?

    A. Honest. B. Independent. C. Curious. D. Humorous.

    29. What is the author’s writing purpose?

    A. To suggest how to help the elder learn new technologies.

    B. To criticize modern technology as unfriendly to the elder.

    C. To show the importance of learning new technologies.

    D. To share her mother’s interesting learning experiences.

    B

    We all know there is a problem with plastic pollution. Five trillion plastic bags are used every year. One million plastic drinking bottles are bought every minute.

    What if we could use plastic waste to build roads? This is exactly what Toby McCartney has done.

    In 2019, McCartney’s UK-based company, MacRebur, built the world’s first plastic road in Elgin town, Scotland. The plastic waste was made into grains and then mixed with bitumen(沥青). The road looks just like any other road. But it has improved strength and is more stretchy(有弹性的)thanks to the plastic.

    “Our technology can not only help solve the problem of plastic waste but also produce roads that deal better with changes in the weather, reducing cracks and holes on the roads,” McCartney told the BBC.

    McCartney’s idea came from a trip to India. “I saw people in India would put plastic waste into the holes on the roads and burn it. The plastic would melt down and cover the hole,” said McCartney.

    “I knew that there must be some similarities between the plastic and bitumen, which both come from oil. That’s how I started to think about mixing them,” he said.

    After lots of testing, McCartney found the perfect recipe. And now his company has built many plastic roads around the world, from Australia to Europe. A one-kilometer stretch of roads uses about 684,000 plastic bottles or 1.8 million plastic bags. The road itself can be recycled at the end of its lifetime. The materials can be reused to build new roads.

    “We’re just a small part of ending the plastic problems, but it’s nice to be part of it,” McCartney said. “I just don’t want my daughters to live in a world where there are more plastics in our oceans than fish.”

    30. Compared with usual roads, which of the following are the advantages of the plastic road?

    a. saves money

    b. is not easy to break

    c. is mixed with bitumen

    d. is not afraid of hot weather

    A. ab. B. ac. C. bc. D. bd.

    31. What caused McCartney to build the plastic road?

    A. Indian people’s way of fixing roads.

    B. His wish of reducing plastic pollution.

    C. His knowledge of plastic and bitumen.

    D. Seeing cracks and holes on roads one day.

    32. ______ plastic bottles arc needed to build a 10-kilometer stretch of plastic road.

    A. 684,000 B. 6.84 million C. 1.8 million D. 18 million

    33. What does McCartney mean in the last paragraph?

    A. He is willing to offer help in reducing plastic pollution.

    B. Children should also join to reduce plastic pollution.

    C. Plastic pollution will soon be solved with his help.

    D. Plastic pollution is becoming more and more serious.

    (C)

    If you have problems describing people, don’t worry. We’ll use popular film characters to help you learn some useful words.

    34. Who always gives support to friends according to the films?

    A. David Berenbaum. B. Woody. C. Niki Caro. D. Miranda.

    35. If your dad expects you to work hard and always make progress, he is __________.

    A. naive B. loyal C. demanding D. talented

    36. In which part of a magazine can we read the text?

    A. Environment. B. Fashion. C. Language. D. Sport.

    (D)

    On Nov 8, Wang Yaping, a female astronaut of Shenzhou XII mission, became China’s first and the world’s 16th female spacewalker. The expected six-month journey in space has left many curious about the differences between male and female astronauts, especially in extravehicular(舱外的)activities (EVAs). Although female astronauts may face lots of physical challenges, they have unique advantages.

    Understanding between astronauts is very important for carrying out EVAs. Women are better in communication and language expression, and this helps female astronauts conduct EVAs. Their strong communication skills and energy also cheer up the crew throughout their stay, according to Pang Zhihao, a spaceflight researcher in Beijing.

    Men and women are different in body size, which also gives women unique advantages for spacewalks. “Their generally smaller size is an advantage, as women will be able to control their weight better and thus perform a wider variety of tasks,” Pang told China Daily. Women in general weigh less, eat less food, consume less oxygen, and therefore required less fuel to get into space. A taikonaut must weigh between 55 kilograms and 70 kilograms to fit in the cabin of spacecraft and consume less fuel!

    A different body shape requires a different spacesuit. A personalized spacesuit was prepared for Wang’s EVAs, which was lighter than that of the male. Designers optimized the pattern of this spacesuit in the lower limb(下肢)area to make it more suitable for astronauts with slimmer figures.

    According to Pang, many studies have found that female astronauts are well adapted to space missions more quickly, and have advantages over male astronauts in qualities such as attention to detail and thinking more carefully. Men are considered to perform better in short-term tasks with clear goals, while women are better in long-term tasks, according to National Geographic.

    Women’s participation in EVAs is a necessary part of space missions, and we are experiencing history thanks to Wang's bravery, according to Yang.

    37. Which of the following statements about Wang Yaping is TRUE?

    A. She is the first female space walker in the world.

    B. She is curious about the extravehicular activities.

    C. She performed some tasks that her male partners couldn’t do.

    D. Wong’s spacesuit was specially designed.

    38. What does the underlined word “optimize” mean in this passage?

    A. make something useful. B. make something better.

    C. make something colourful. D. make something cheaper.

    39. What might be the reason why Wang Yaping was chosen to conduct EVAs?

    A. She faces less physical challenges.

    B. She has better communication skills.

    C. She is stronger and healthier.

    D. She performs better in short-term tasks.

    40. What’s the main idea of the article?

    A. The challenges female astronauts face during a spacewalk.

    B. The importance of female doing extravehicular activities.

    C. The advantages of females doing extravehicular activities.

    D. The preparations for the females to carry out space mission.

    第二节 阅读填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    阅读短文及文后的A~E选项,选出可以填入41~45各题空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

    Sam is a great designer working within a well-known publishing company. For the last three years, he has been working from home. He prefers working from home because he can spend more time lending a helping hand to his family and have a better work-life balance. In fact, Sam isn’t alone. ___41___ Many counties share similar situations.

    But why? This is because technology makes it possible for people to surf the Internet and hold online meetings easily. ___42___ Office space is expensive, so if an organization can reduce its workstations, it may be able to move to a smaller office. ___43___ Thus, many homeworkers save a lot of time and they can start the day fresher.

    Sam says, “I have been working from home since my son was born and have been really enjoying it. ___44___ I’ve known my boss and colleagues for a long time now, which really helps because you’ve got to trust each other. You also need to have regular contact, or you really miss out on the social side of work.”

    ___45___ Some argue that the only people who can work from home are those who do an unnecessary job. Luckily, for Sam and the 2.1 million like him, not many people think that way. If the trends continue to rise, they may get the last laugh.

    四、写作(共三节,满分30分)

    第一节 语篇填词(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    阅读短文,根据下列句子及所给单词的首字母写出所缺单词。注意使用正确形式,每空限填一词。答卷时,要求写出完整单词。

    Kenshi Yonezu is a Japanese singer. You must have h___46___his songs, Lemon, which had millions of plays in 2018. After that he became famous around the world. When Yonezu was y___47___, he didn’t like talking to others. He always drew pictures of played a___48___. His parents worried about him. He had difficulty with language and was diagnosed with autism in bis twenties. But he didn’t give up. He is very talented. All of his music is w___49___ by himself. I like Yonezu not only because of his great songs, but also his s___50___. His positive attitude toward life is worth learning.

    第二节 完成句子(共5小题;每题2分,满分10分)

    根据所给的中文内容,用英语完成下列句子。(每空限填一词)

    51. 这款智能手机能够用来操纵汽车。

    This type of smart phone ______ ______ ______ ______ control cars.

    52. 如果你足够细心,就不会犯错。

    ______ you’re careful enough, you ______ ______ ______.

    53. 这个建议真有用啊!它给予了我很大的帮助。

    ______ ______ ______it is! It helps me a lot.

    54. 我想知道明天会不会是晴天。

    I wonder ______ ______ ______ ______ sunny tomorrow.

    55. 他业余时间研究法律,成了律师。

    He studied law ______ ______ ______ ______ and became a lawyer.

    第三节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分)

    央视推出的大型原创文化类竞技节目《中国汉字听写大会》热播了三季,引起了人们对汉字书写的关注。假如学校要举办一场演讲比赛,请你以“传递书写文明,领略汉字之美”为主题,根据以下思维导图写一篇演讲稿。

    注意:1. 参考词汇:中国汉字(Chinese characters)、提高意识(raise awareness);

    2. 词数:80词左右(短文的开头己给出,不计入词数) ;

    3. 不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息,否则不予评分。

    Boys and girls, have you ever experienced this moment? You pick up a pen and start to write something down, but you can’t remember what the characters look like.

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

    _______________________________________________________________________________

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    参考答案

    一、语法选择(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

    1~5 DBBCA 6~10 ACDBD 11~15 CCABA

    二、完形填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

    16~20 ABDAD 21~25 CDBAA

    三、阅读(共两节,满分35分)

    第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

    26~29 CACD 30~33 CBBA 34~36 BCC 37~40 DBBC

    第二节 阅读填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    41~45 DEBCA

    四、写作(共三节,满分30分)

    第一节 语篇填词(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)

    46. heard; 47. young; 48. alone; 49. written; 50. spirits

    第二节 完成句子(共5小题;每题2分,满分10分)

    51. can be used to; 52. If won’t make mistakes; 53. What useful advice

    54. if it will be; 55. in his free time

    第三节 书面表达(共1题,满分15分)

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